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What about where the Bible says that there are many Lords and Gods?

by | Apr 27, 2010 | God, Questions

The Bible teaches us that there is only one God and all existence (Isaiah 43:10; 44:6,8). Nevertheless, there are many cult groups who claim that there is more than one God. Mormonism, for example, teaches that there are many Gods and that it is possible for people to become gods of their own worlds. One of the verses they use to support their view is found in (1 Cor. 8:5-6). It says,

  • “For even if there are so-called gods whether in heaven or on earth, as indeed there are many gods and many lords, 6 yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things, and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him,”  (1 Cor. 8:5-6, NASB).
  • “For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords”), 6yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live,” (1 Cor. 8:5-6, NIV). The key to understanding this scripture is the term “so-called.”

Paul is not teaching us that there are actually many genuine gods. In fact, he is claiming just the opposite! He is teaching us that there are many things that are “called” gods but are not really gods. Paul explains this elsewhere as well. For example, he says in Gal. 4:8, “Formerly, when you did not know God, you were slaves to those who by nature are not gods.” We can see that the Bible teaches that there is only one God, yet people believe in other gods. In reality, these other “gods” are not genuine deities at all but are falsely worshipped as such.

Oneness Pentecostal

If there is only one God who is the Father, and Jesus speaks to the Father, then that shows that they are distinct. This would imply that Jesus is not God. If there is only one God, Jesus, who speaks of the Father, then that shows that they are distinct. The context is dealing with things sacrificed to idols (v.4). Paul then mentions that there are many so-called gods and many lords (v. 5). This sets up v. 6, where Paul says there is only one God the Father from whom are all things and one Lord Jesus by whom are all things. Note that it does not say there is only one God, the Father. But that there is “one God the Father from whom [ἐξ οὗ] are all things” (v. 6). He also says, “one Lord, Jesus Christ, by [διά οὗ] whom are all things.” “From whom are all things” modifies “one God, the Father,” who is the ultimate source of all things.

Paul is saying that all things are from God the Father – who is the first person of the Trinity. Furthermore, He is called Father in relation to Jesus, the Son, the second person of the Trinity. Verse 6 also says that there is “one Lord, Jesus Christ by whom are all things.” This designates the pre-existence of the Son in relation to the Father. If the oneness position is true, then the Father and the Son are NOT distinct before creation. Yet this verse implies that they are distinct since both are referenced as before the creation yet with distinction in prepositions (from, by). The “from whom” and “by whom” show distinction: from one and by another. It is the Father from whom (source) are all things, and the Son by whom (agency) are all things. The pre-incarnate Christ is the intermediate agent in creation, as Col. 1:15-17 demonstrates. This shows the difference in functions, hence, the economic trinity.

Questions: 1) Was God the Father, eternally the Father?  If yes: Then, how is He eternally the Father without a son? If no: Then why do the Oneness deny the clear teaching of references to God the Father in relation to the Son (Matt. 3:17; 11:27; John 6:37, etc.)

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