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Examples of bad interpretations of Scripture by various Church Fathers

by | Mar 21, 2023 | Quotes by Topic, Early Church Fathers

The Church Fathers did a great job of expounding on Scripture. They clarified, defined, and refuted. We owe a debt to them for their insights into the word of God. However, not all of them agree with each other. Some of the Church Fathers reveal bad interpretations of Scripture. The following is an example of just so faulty interpretations. Now, please know that I am not ridiculing them. Instead, I am simply pointing out that they were not perfect and occasionally made mistakes when examining the word of God.

bad interpretations of Scripture by various Church Fathers

Examples of bad interpretations of Scripture by various Church Fathers

 

CHURCH FATHERS QUOTE ERROR
Chrysostom
on John 6:39
  • John 6:39, “This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day.”

“And in another place He saith, “Of all that Thou gavest Me, I will surely lose nothing. Yet not only was he i.e. the traitor lost, but also many afterwards; how then saith He, “I will in nowise lose”? οὐ μὴ ἀπ “For My part, I will not lose.” So in another place, declaring the matter was more clearly, He said, “I will in nowise cast out. Not through fault of Mine, not because I either instigate or abandon them; but if they start away of themselves, I draw them not by necessity.” (https://ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf114.iv.lxxxiii.html)

Chrysostom errs in his reference to John 6:39 since it does not say people can lose themselves
Cyprian
on John 6:65
  • John 6:65, “And He was saying, “For this reason I have said to you, that no one can come to Me unless it has been granted him from the Father.”

“No man can come unto me except it were given unto him of my Father?” So that it is evident, that no remission of sins can be received in baptism from the Son, which it is not plain that the Father has granted.” (https://ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf05.iv.iv.lxxii.html)

In John 6:65, Cyprian ties it to  baptism, which is not in the context
Hilary of Poitiers, John of Damascus
on John 1:13
  • John 1:13, “who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God.”

“And thus she conceived the Son of God, the hypostatic power of the Father, not of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, that is to say, by connection and seed, but by the good pleasure of the Father and co-operation of the Holy Spirit.” (https://ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf209.iii.iv.iv.xiv.html)

John of Damascus mistakingly says John 1:13 refers to Jesus’ birth.
Irenaeus
on John 1:13
  • John 1:13, “who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God.”

“…but the Holy Ghost, foreseeing the corrupters [of the truth], and guarding by anticipation against their deceit, says by Matthew, “But the birth of Christ was on this wise;” and that He is Emmanuel, lest perchance we might consider Him as a mere man: for “not by the will of the flesh nor by the will of man, but by the will of God was the Word made flesh;” and that we should not imagine that Jesus was one, and Christ another, but should know them to be one and the same.” (https://ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.ix.iv.xvii.html)”For this reason [it is, said], “Who shall declare His generation?”since “He is a man, and who shall recognise Him?” But he to whom the Father which is in heaven has revealed Him. knows Him, so that he understands that He who “was not born either by the will of the flesh, or by the will of man,” is the Son of man, this is Christ, the Son of the living God.” (https://www.catholiccrossreference.online/fathers/index.php/John%201.13)

Irenaeus mistakingly says John 1:13 refers to Jesus’ birth.

“Who” were born is plural.

Tertullian
on John 1:13
  • John 1:13, “who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God.”

“But how can this be, when all who believe in the name of the Lord are, by reason of the common principle of the human race, born of blood, and of the will of the flesh, and of man, as indeed is Valentinus himself? The expression is in the singular number, as referring to the Lord, “He was born of God.” And very properly, because Christ is the Word of God, and with the Word the Spirit of God, and by the Spirit the Power of God, and whatsoever else appertains to God. As flesh, however, He is not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of man, because it was by the will of God that the Word was made flesh. To the flesh, indeed, and not to the Word, accrues the denial of the nativity which is natural to us all as men, Formalis nostræ nativitatis. because it was as flesh that He had thus to be born, and not as the Word.” (https://ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf03.v.vii.xix.html)

Mistakingly says John 1:13 refers to Jesus’ birth.

 

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